| I stumbled upon some discussion of the debate as to whether the repression of the Vendee during the Reign of Terror should be considered a genocide. What was interesting to me is that the (generally accepted) arguments against its classification as a genocide seem to be identical to the (generally rejected) arguments against the classification of Turkey's repression of the Armenians as genocide. Is there a difference between the two circumstances I'm missing, or is it just that French will never accuse France of genocide but have no problem accusing Turkey of the same? |
