I remember the story of instances where the German Communist delegates in the Weimar Republic Reichstag were ordered by Stalin to vote with the Nazi delegates. The evident motive was to undermine the stability of the Weimar Republic.
Of course we know Stalin and Hitler abetted each other. Hitler abetted Stalin in the Mikhail Tukhachevsky (Was Tukhachevsky as great a general as they say?) affair or at least was reputed to have. Stalin laid low during the Sudetenland crisis and signed a non-aggression pact with Hitler which promised him Poland east of the Bug and gave Hitler a free hand to attack Poland. The Russians supplied Germany with wheat and oil while Germany was taking the Low Countries, France, the Balkans and Greece. The story is that the Germans waited for a last Russian shipment of oil before openning their offensive against Russia.
Knowing this and also knowing that blitzkrieg warfare was still an unknown quantity when Stalin decided to help Hitler suggest that Stalin was motivated by an anticipation that, with his help, Hitler would precipitate a war in the west and that that war would be fought just like the war on the Western Front was fought in 1914-1918. The result in turn would be a stalemated struggle which would exhaust the resources of the west and cause despair past the point at which the European masses would rebel and welcome the Red Army as liberators.
I believe the Entente countries in WWI came very close to following Russia's November 1917 example (Even in the 1930s here if you listen to some who lived through the depression). It takes no stretch of the imagination to look at Western Europe through Stalin's eyes of 1933 and see the possibility of another seemingly endless series of Verduns, Ypres and Sommes.
I believe Stalin pursued a 1930s strategy aimed at having Europe handed to him by suicidal war without him having to fight a war against even third rate force. If it were not for the likes of Heinz Guderian, he may well have succeeded. |