You argument start well and your insistance on economic is right: French power was constently plagued by economic views under old regime (i.e monarchy).However difficult to think that France top was in 1754: Candian war was absolutely unsignificant for French at this time: people complained to invest in what they called "few icy acre of land".The problem was in Europe.But at the moment of US revolution France was at the top: peace in Europe and building a strong navy able to destroy british navy and to reconquer India (which was considered much more important than Norht America) and achieve domination in antillas.However economic problems due to lack of reforms (opposed by church and aristocraty) led to revolution in 1789.

Some interesting site in French: http://www.checkpoint-online.ch/ http://www.military.ch/RMS http://www.stratisc.org/index.html (very good for military strategy)

(1) What profitable territory and resources did France gain between 1754 and the Revolution? (2) How can you be at the top of your power "just before you have a revolution" - the economics must be decaying for many years.

Britain didn?t complete the conquest of India till 1803 at Gawlighur, where the Mahratta confederation was finally put to the sword. So how could France be contemplating a total conquest of India when Britain at this time only controlled the eastern side?

I don't think you can forget Macedonia under Alexander. While it lasted only 12 years, it was incredibly powerful during his lifetime.